Top 100 MCQ of SSC
General Knowledge Question : Answer are Given at the end of Post
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1. Through which constitutional amendment in article 359, it has been laid down that Fundamental Rights under articles 20 and 21 are enforceable during the operation of emergency.
(A) 44th Amendment Act
(B) 46th Amendment Act
(C) 45th Amendment Act
(D) 48th Amendment Act
2. On whose satisfaction period of emergency shall be extended for operation in case security of India or any part of the Indian territory is threatened.
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) President of India
(D) Vice-President of India
3. Article 20 of the Fundamental Rights represents which subject.
(A) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
(B) Protection in respect of Conviction of Offence
(C) Protection of life and personal liberty
(D) None of the above .
4. Article 21 of the Fundamental Rights deals with which subject.
(A) Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech,
(B) Protection in respect of conviction of offence
(C) Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases
(D) Protection of life and personal liberty
5. Who declares the financial emergency.
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Finance Minister
(D) None of the above
6. After declaration of financial emergency by the President, what is the period of operation without approval by the ParliamenT.
(A) Three Months
(B) Four Months
(C) Two Months
(D) One Month
7. Within what period, the Parliament has to approve Financial emergency declared by the
President—
(A) Six Months
(B) Two Months
(C) Three Months
(D) Four Months
8. In Financial Emergency, salaries and allowances of which groups get reduction—
(A) Central Government Employees
(B) Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
9. Raj Pramukh represents whom under the Indian Constitution—
(A) President
(B) Governor
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
10. Under the Indian Constitution, what is the concept behind the protection of President and
Governors—
(A) President & Governors are above the law
(B) President & Governors make any law for the Constitution
(C) President and Governors are answerable to Prime Minister
(D) President and Governors shall not be answerable to any court to the exercise and
performance of the powers and duties of their office
11. By which Constitutional amendment, the appellation Rajpramukh was omitted—
(A) 7th Amendment Act 1956
(B) 4th Amendment Act 1955
(C) 6th Amendment Act 1956
(D) 10th Amendment Act 1961
12. Which constitutional article provides personal immunity for President and Governors for
official act—
(A) Article 362
(B) Article 363
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 361
13. Which constitutional article provides personal immunity to the head of the states for his
official act from legal action, including proceedings for contempt of Court—
(A) Article 361
(B) Article 362
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 369
14. Under which constitutional articles, newspapers do not have the right to publish report of
the proceedings of a secret session of either of the Houses of Parliament or Legislative
Assembly & Legislative Council—
(A) 361
(B) 361A
(C) 361B
(C) 361C
15. Spell out the condition under Article 361A by which any person or newspaper cannot be
sued for legal proceeding if any report of proceedings of Parliament and State Legislature is
published—
(A) The report must be a report of the `procedings' of a House of the Union or a State
Legislature. Hence, it must be relevant to a motion or other business before the House, and
must not have been expunged
(B) It must be a ‘report’ as distinguished from one article or `Comment'.
(C) Such report must be substantially true. Hence, an extract or a garbed or perverted report
would not be protected. The reporting must not be actuated by malice
(D) All of the above .
16. Any Court including Supreme Court does not have constitutional right under Article 143 to
exercise jurisdiction over any dispute arising out of any provision of which agreements that
were in operation before commencement of the Constitution—
(A) Treaty, Agrrement
(B) Covenant, Engagement
(C) Sanad
(D) All of the above .
17. What is the meaning of Indian State in the Constitution—
(A) Any territory recognised by President of India
(B) Any territory before commencement of Indian Constitution by the British ruler
(C) Any territory which government of the Dominion of India recognised
(D) B & C
18. Before which Constitutional Amendment, Prince, Chief or other person were recognised by
the President of India as the Ruler of the Indian State—
(A) 26th Amendment Act 1971
(B) 24th Amendment Act 1971
(C) 16th Amendment Act 1963
(D) 17th Amendment Act 1964 .
19. Under which Constitutional Amendment Privy Purses were abolished—
(A) 36th Amendment Act 1975
(B) 26th Amendment Act 1971
(C) 16th Amendment Act 1963
(D) 17th Amendment Act 1964
20. Under which Constitutional Article, Union Government has the power to give direction to
the State Govt. regarding any of the provisions of the Constitution—
(A) Article 368
(B) Article 362
(C) Article 365
(D) Article 367
21. If any State Government fails to comply with or to give effect to any direction given by the
Union Government, who can come to conclusion that a situation has arisen in which the State
cannot carry out governance in accordance with the provision in the Constituion—
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Home Minister
(D) Supreme Court
22. Under Article 365 what are the duties of the Union Government with respect to State
Governments—
(A) Ensure that every State Minister should act in accordance with the advice of Chief Minister
(B) Ensure that Governor acts under advice of the Chief Minister
(C) Ensure that Governance in the State is in accordance with the Constitution
(D) All of the above
23. What is the meaning of Foreign State as given in our Indian Constitution—
(A) Federal State
(B) Commonwealth State
(C) Nation
(D) Any State other than India
24. Which Constitutional article defines the work of Administrative Tribunal—
(A) Article 323A
(B) Article 233B
(C) Article 223B
(D) None of the above
25. Under which part of the Constitution, Tribunals have been defined—
(A) Part Four
(B) Part Seven
(C) Part Fifteen
(D) Part Ten
26. What is the period laid down by the Constitution before the proposal for removal of
Speaker and Deputy Speaker of LokSabha can be taken up by a resolution in the LokSabha—
(A) 15 Days
(B) 18 Days
(C) 16 Days
(D) 14 Days
27. In LokSabha, who can not preside in the House while a Resolution for Removal from his
office is under consideration—
(A) Speaker
(B) Deputy Speaker
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
28. Under which Article Salaries and allowances of the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of Rajya
Sabha and Speaker and Deputy Speaker of LokSabha are mentioned—
(A) 97
(B) 96
(C) 95
(D) 94
29. Which Article mentions the conduct of business of the Houses of Parliament—
(A) 99
(B) 100
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
30. Who appoints each member of either of the Houses of the Parliament after notification is
received from the Election Commission—
(A) President
(B) Speaker of LokSabha
(C) Chairman of RajyaSabha
(D) Prime Minister
31. Who shall not give vote in the first instance in either of the Houses of Parliament—
(A) Speaker
(B) Chairman
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
32. When Speaker and Chairman shall give their votes on the Parliament.
(A) When Prime Minister asks them to give vote on the Bill
(B) When the House passes such a resolution
(C) In the case of a tie between Yes and No
(D) All the above
33. What is the Quorum laid down to constitute a meeting of either of the Houses of
Parliament—
(A) one-tenth of the total number of members of that House
(B) one-fourth of the total number of members of that House
(C) one-fifth of the total number of members of that House
(D) one-half of the total number of members of that House
34. Which Article mentions disqualification of members in the Parliament—
(A) Article 101 to Article 104
(B) Article 101 to Articles 105
(C) Article 102 to Article 106
(D) Article 106 to Article 110
35. LokSabha has the supremacy in which matter—
(A) Railway Budget
(B) Defence Budget
(C) Foreign affairs
(D) Financial Bill
36. Normally, what kind of session does the Parliament hold—
(A) Budget session
(B) Monsoon session
(C) Winter session
(D) All the above
37. Which session of the year, President addresses both the Houses of Parliament—
(A) First session (Budget)
(B) Second session (Monsoon)
(C) Third session (Winter)
(D) None of the above
38. In which session of Parliament, Railway and General Budgets are presented—
(A) Monsoon session
(B) First session
(C) Winter session
(D) None of the above
39. What is the meaning of the adjournment motion under Parliamentary procedure—
(A) Member draws attention regarding important subject-matter
(B) Member wants the House to discuss his subject-matter
(C) Member wants to raise complicated issue
(D) Member wants to draw the attention of the House to way recent matter of urgent public
importance having serious consequences.
40. Who has the power to accept adjournment in the House—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) Speaker in the LokSabha and Chairman in the RajyaSabha
(D) All the above
41. Which authority in the Parliament has the right to adjourn the House—
(A) Speaker of LokSabha and Chairman of RajyaSabha
(B) President
(C) Parliamentary Affairs Minister
(D) Prime Minister
42. Who has the power to present adjournment motion in LokSabha and RajyaSabha—
(A) Minister
(B) Deputy Speaker
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Member of the said House
43. In the Parliament, every Bill has to pass through which stages of Reading before it becomes
act—
(A) First Reading
(B) Second Reading
(C) Third Reading
(D) All the above
44. When a Bill is passed by the Parliament and the President, what is the status of the
name—
(A) Law
(B) Bill approved
(C) Bill exercised for administration
(D) Government procedure
45. Which two houses, can have a joint sitting—
(A) Legislative Assembly and Parliament
(B) LokSabha and RajyaSabha
(C) Council of State and Legislative Council
(D) None of the above
46. When does the President assent the Bill—
(A) LokSabha passes the Bill
(B) RajyaSabha passes the Bill
(C) LokSabha and RajyaSabha both passed the Bill
(D) None of the above
47. In India, when does the financial year commence—
(A) First April
(B) Second April
(C) First March
(D) Fifteenth March
48. On the subject of budget, demands for grant are arranged in which way—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Finance Minister
(C) Ministry wise
(D) All the above
49. In how many parts, the Budget is presented in LokSabha—
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
50. How are the parts of the Budget known as—
(A) General Budget
(B) Railway Budget
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
51. During T. N. Seshan period as Chief Election Commissioner, who was the other
Commissioner in the Election Commission—
(A) M. S. Gill
(B) G. V. Krishnamurthy
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
52. For which Election, one General Electoral Roll for every territorial Constituency shall
exist—
(A) LokSabha
(B) RajyaSabha
(C) Legislature
(D) All the above
53. On what basis, Election to LokSabha and State Legislature shall be conducted—
(A) Adult Suffrage
(B) Indirect Election
(C) Direct Election
(D) None of the above
54. Under which Constitutional Amendment, provision for minimum age as 18 years for the
Indian citizen was made to become eligible to vote—
(A) 60th Amendment Act 1988
(B) 61st Amendment Act 1989
(C) 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(D) None of the above
55. Before 61st Amendment Act 1989, what was the age of Indian citizen eligible to vote in the
Election—
(A) 23
(B) 24
(C) 21
(D) 22
56. Under Article 326, what was the Constitutional requirment for the Indian citizen not to
become eligible as a voter—
(A) Non Resident
(B) Unsoundness of Mind
(C) Crime or Corrupt or Illegal practive
(D) All the above
57. Which Constitutional Article lays down qualification for becoming a voter—
(A) Article 328
(B) Article 339
(C) Article 326
(D) Article 295
58. Which Constitutional Article lays down qualifications for the Indian citizens for election to
Parliament—
(A) Article 81
(B) Article 80
(C) Article 83
(D) Article 84
59. Which Constitutional Article defines qualifications for the Indian citizen for election to a
State Legislature—
(A) Article 173
(B) Article 175
(C) Article 177
(D) Article 178
60. Under the Indian Constitution, what does `Adult Suffrage' signify—
(A) Children
(B) Persons
(C) Any Indian citizen who is of the age of 18 years and above
(D) None of the above
61. Who makes law with respect to Elections for State Legislature—
(A) Parliament
(B) Judiciary
(C) Government
(D) Election Commission
62. Under Constitutional Articles 327 or 328, which subject shall not be called to be questioned
in any Court—
(A) Delimitation of Constituencies
(B) The allotment of seats to such Constituency
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
63. How the election to either House of Parliament or to either House of the Legislature of the
State shall be called in question in the courts whose manner of presentation may be provided
made by law by appropriate Legislature—
(A) PIL (Public Interest Litigation)
(B) SLP (Special Leave Petition)
(C) Action under Article 32
(D) Election Petition
64. Which Constitutional Article lays down the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and
Scheduled Tribes in the LokSabha—
(A) Article 330
(B) Article 332
(C) Article 333
(D) Article 334
65. Which Constitutional Article deals with `Representation of the Anglo-Indian Community'
with House of the People—
(A) Article 334
(B) Article 331
(C) Article 332
(D) Article 333
66. Under Article 331, how many members of the Anglo-Indian Community can be nominated
in LokSabha by the President—
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 1
67. In which State a separate district has been reserved for Scheduled Tribes—
(A) Assam
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Kerala
68. Which Constitutional Article deals with representation of the Anglo-Indian Community in
the Legislative Assembly—
(A) Article 334
(B) Article 335
(C) Article 336
(D) Article 333
69. Under Article 333, how many members from the Anglo-Indian Community can be
nominated by the Governor in the Legislative Assembly—
(A) 8
(B) 1
(C) 4
(D) 3
70. Under which Constitutional Amendment of Article 334, reservation of seats for Scheduled
Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the LokSabha and State Legislative Assembly has been laid
down—
(A) 31st Amendment Act 1959
(B) 23rd Amendment Act
(C) 45th Amendment Act 1980 & 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(D) All the above
71. Before which Constitutional Amendment, 20 years were fixed for reservation of seats for
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in LokSabha and State Legislature—
(A) 23rd Amendment Act 1969
(B) 8th Amendment Act 1959
(C) 44th Amendment Act 1978
(D) 45th Amendment Act 1980
72. Through which Constitutional Amendment, 30 years were fixed for reservation of seats for
SC and ST in LokSabha and State Assembly—
(A) 45th Amendment Act 1980
(B) 50th Amendment Act 1984
(C) 23rd Amendment Act 1969
(D) 51st Amendment Act 1984
73. Which Constitutional Amendment fixes 40 years for reservation of seats for SC and ST in Lok
Sabha and State Legislative Assembly.
(A) 55th Amendment Act 1986
(B) 56th Amendment Act 1987
(C) 52nd Amendment Act 1985
(D) 45th Amendment Act 1980
74. Which Constitutional Amendment lays down 50 years for reservation of seats for SC and ST
in the House of People and State Legislative Assembly—
(A) 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(B) 44th Amendment Act 1928
(C) 45th Amendment Act 1980
(D) None of the above
75. Which Constitutional Article mentions ‘Claims of SC and ST in Govt. services and
post’—
(A) Article 336
(B) Article 335
(B) Article 338
(D) Article 339
76. In the Parliament, what is the meaning of the Government Bill—
(A) Bill presented by Ruling Party member
(B) Bill approved by the Government
(C) Only the Prime Minister presents the Bill
(D) A Bill introduced by any Minister in either of the Houses of the Parliament
77. In the Second Reading, what kind of process is adopted to approve the Bill—
(A) A general discussion on the Bill
(B) Clause by clause consideration of the Bill
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
78. Who has the authority to call a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Member of LokSabha
(D) Member of RajyaSabha
79. Who has the power to accord his assent or withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the
parliament—
(A) President
(B) Member of the House
(C) Minister
(D) None of the above
80. Which Bill President can neither return nor withhold his assent—
(A) Defence Bill
(B) Money Bill
(C) Law Bill
(D) Financial Account Committee Bill
81. How may Standing Committees are there in LokSabha—
(A) 14
(B) 15
(C) 15
(D) 18 .
82. Standing Committees in LokSabhaare—
(A) Business Advisory Committee & Committee of Privileges
(B) Committee on Absence of Members from the sitting of the House & Committee on
Estimates
(C) Committee on Government assurances and Committee on papers laid on the Table
(D) All the above
83. Financial Committees in LokSabhaare—
(A) Committee on Estimates
(B) Public Accounts Committee
(C) Public Undertaking Committee
(D) All the above
84. Ad hoc Committees in Parliament are—
(A) Committee on Draft Five Year Plan, etc.
(B) Committee in the conduct of certain members during the President Address (C) Select or
Joint Committee on Bills
(D) All the above
85. Who appoints Ad hoc Committee on Parliament—
(A) Speaker of LokSabha
(B) Chairman of RajyaSabha
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
86. By which procedure the Indian President and American President are elected as laid down
by their country's constitution—
(A) Elected through Member of Legislature
(B) Elected by the People
(C) Elected by State Legislatures
(D) Elected by an Electoral College
87. In what way our Indian Parliament is not Sovereign or Supreme with respect to the
Constitution—
(A) In the Preamble, Constitution of India defines people of India as Sovereign
(B) Written Constitution of India
(C) Separation of Power and Checks and Blanees between the three constitutional organ
(D) All the above
88. Who has said that basic features of the Indian Constitution do not amount to a change—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Parliament
(C) Supreme Court of India
(D) Government .
89. What is the nature of India's political system—
(A) Presidential System
(B) Parliamentary System
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
90. Which Constitutional Article was very much affected in the Supreme Court Judgement of
Kesavanand Bharti vs. State of Kerala—
(A) Article 352
(B) Article 368
(C) Article 351
(D) Article 342
91. Which constitutional article emopowers amendment in the Constitution of India—
(A) Article 368
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 357
(D) Article 359
92. Which constitutional organ has the power to amend Constitution of India—
(A) Judiciary
(B) Executive
(C) Legislative
(D) Parliament
93. On which subject, Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution and the same also
need ratification by the State Legislature—
(A) Articles 54, 55, 73, 162 and 241 or Chapter IV of Part V, Chapter V of Part VI or Chapter I of
Part XI
(B) Any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedules of the representation of State on Parliament
(C) The Provisions of Article 368
(D) All the above
94. Under which Constitutional Amendment Act, Article 368 of the Constitution was amended
for the first time—
(A) 25th Amendment Act
(B) 26th Amendment Act
(C) 24th Amendment Act
(D) 27th Amendment Act
95. Which Supreme Court Judgement pronounced that Fundamental Rights cannot be
abridged—
(A) GolakNath vs. State of Punjab A.I.R. 1967 S.C. 1643
(B) Kesavanand Bharti vs. State of Kerala A.I.R. 1973 S.C. 1961
(C) Indira Gandhi vs. Rajnarain A.I.R. 1975 S.C. 2299
(D) None of the above
96. Who curbed the Judicial Review power of Judiciary through Amendment of the
Constitution—
(A) State Legislature
(B) Parliament
(C) Council of State
(D) Legislative Council
97. Who restored the Judicial Review power of Judiciary under Indian Constitution—
(A) Supreme Court of India
(B) High Court
(C) Chief Metropolitan Magistrate
(D) District Court
98. In which House, Janta Government failed to secure two-third majority for new clause under
Article 368 for introducing referendum for effecting changes in certain logic features of the
Constitution—
(A) Legislative Council
(B) State Legislature
(C) State Assembly
(D) RajyaSabha
99. Who said in his judgement that no part of our Constitution is unamendable—
(A) Allahabad High Court
(B) Calcutta High Court
(C) Madras High Court
(D) Supreme Court of India
100. What was the important landmark judgement regarding amendment of the Constitution
(Article 368)
(A) Shankari Prasad vs. Union of India
(B) GolakNathvs State of Punjab
(C) Kesavanandavs State of Kerala, Minerva Mill vs. Union of India
(D) All the above
Answers :
1.(A) 2.(C) 3.(B) 4.(D) 5.(A) 6.(C) 7.(B) 8.(C) 9.(C) 10.(D) 11.(A) 12.(D) 13.(A) 14.(B) 15.(D) 16.(D) 17.(D) 18.(A) 19.(B) 20.(C) 21.(A) 22.(C) 23.(D) 24.(A) 25.(C) 26.(D) 27.(C) 28.(A) 29.(C) 30.(A) 31.(C) 32.(C) 33.(A) 34.(A) 35.(D) 36.(D) 37.(A) 38.(B) 39.(D) 40.(C) 41.(A) 42.(D) 43.(D) 44.(A)
45.(B) 46.(C) 47.(A) 48.(C) 49.(B) 50.(C) 51.(C) 52.(D) 53.(A) 54.(B) 55.(C) 56.(D) 57.(C) 58.(D) 59.(A) 60.(C) 61.(A) 62.(C) 63.(D) 64.(A) 65.(B) 66.(C) 67.(A) 68.(D) 69.(B) 70.(D) 71.(B) 72.(C) 73.(D) 74.(A) 75.(B) 76.(D) 77.(C) 78.(B) 79.(A) 80.(B) 81.(D) 82.(D) 83.(D) 84.(D) 85.(C) 86.(D) 87.(D) 88.(C) 89.(B) 90.(B) 91.(A) 92.(D) 93.(D) 94.(C) 95.(A) 96.(B) 97.(A) 98.(D) 99.(D) 100.(D)
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1. Through which constitutional amendment in article 359, it has been laid down that Fundamental Rights under articles 20 and 21 are enforceable during the operation of emergency.
(A) 44th Amendment Act
(B) 46th Amendment Act
(C) 45th Amendment Act
(D) 48th Amendment Act
2. On whose satisfaction period of emergency shall be extended for operation in case security of India or any part of the Indian territory is threatened.
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) President of India
(D) Vice-President of India
3. Article 20 of the Fundamental Rights represents which subject.
(A) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
(B) Protection in respect of Conviction of Offence
(C) Protection of life and personal liberty
(D) None of the above .
4. Article 21 of the Fundamental Rights deals with which subject.
(A) Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech,
(B) Protection in respect of conviction of offence
(C) Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases
(D) Protection of life and personal liberty
5. Who declares the financial emergency.
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Finance Minister
(D) None of the above
6. After declaration of financial emergency by the President, what is the period of operation without approval by the ParliamenT.
(A) Three Months
(B) Four Months
(C) Two Months
(D) One Month
7. Within what period, the Parliament has to approve Financial emergency declared by the
President—
(A) Six Months
(B) Two Months
(C) Three Months
(D) Four Months
8. In Financial Emergency, salaries and allowances of which groups get reduction—
(A) Central Government Employees
(B) Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
9. Raj Pramukh represents whom under the Indian Constitution—
(A) President
(B) Governor
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
10. Under the Indian Constitution, what is the concept behind the protection of President and
Governors—
(A) President & Governors are above the law
(B) President & Governors make any law for the Constitution
(C) President and Governors are answerable to Prime Minister
(D) President and Governors shall not be answerable to any court to the exercise and
performance of the powers and duties of their office
11. By which Constitutional amendment, the appellation Rajpramukh was omitted—
(A) 7th Amendment Act 1956
(B) 4th Amendment Act 1955
(C) 6th Amendment Act 1956
(D) 10th Amendment Act 1961
12. Which constitutional article provides personal immunity for President and Governors for
official act—
(A) Article 362
(B) Article 363
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 361
13. Which constitutional article provides personal immunity to the head of the states for his
official act from legal action, including proceedings for contempt of Court—
(A) Article 361
(B) Article 362
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 369
14. Under which constitutional articles, newspapers do not have the right to publish report of
the proceedings of a secret session of either of the Houses of Parliament or Legislative
Assembly & Legislative Council—
(A) 361
(B) 361A
(C) 361B
(C) 361C
15. Spell out the condition under Article 361A by which any person or newspaper cannot be
sued for legal proceeding if any report of proceedings of Parliament and State Legislature is
published—
(A) The report must be a report of the `procedings' of a House of the Union or a State
Legislature. Hence, it must be relevant to a motion or other business before the House, and
must not have been expunged
(B) It must be a ‘report’ as distinguished from one article or `Comment'.
(C) Such report must be substantially true. Hence, an extract or a garbed or perverted report
would not be protected. The reporting must not be actuated by malice
(D) All of the above .
16. Any Court including Supreme Court does not have constitutional right under Article 143 to
exercise jurisdiction over any dispute arising out of any provision of which agreements that
were in operation before commencement of the Constitution—
(A) Treaty, Agrrement
(B) Covenant, Engagement
(C) Sanad
(D) All of the above .
17. What is the meaning of Indian State in the Constitution—
(A) Any territory recognised by President of India
(B) Any territory before commencement of Indian Constitution by the British ruler
(C) Any territory which government of the Dominion of India recognised
(D) B & C
18. Before which Constitutional Amendment, Prince, Chief or other person were recognised by
the President of India as the Ruler of the Indian State—
(A) 26th Amendment Act 1971
(B) 24th Amendment Act 1971
(C) 16th Amendment Act 1963
(D) 17th Amendment Act 1964 .
19. Under which Constitutional Amendment Privy Purses were abolished—
(A) 36th Amendment Act 1975
(B) 26th Amendment Act 1971
(C) 16th Amendment Act 1963
(D) 17th Amendment Act 1964
20. Under which Constitutional Article, Union Government has the power to give direction to
the State Govt. regarding any of the provisions of the Constitution—
(A) Article 368
(B) Article 362
(C) Article 365
(D) Article 367
21. If any State Government fails to comply with or to give effect to any direction given by the
Union Government, who can come to conclusion that a situation has arisen in which the State
cannot carry out governance in accordance with the provision in the Constituion—
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Home Minister
(D) Supreme Court
22. Under Article 365 what are the duties of the Union Government with respect to State
Governments—
(A) Ensure that every State Minister should act in accordance with the advice of Chief Minister
(B) Ensure that Governor acts under advice of the Chief Minister
(C) Ensure that Governance in the State is in accordance with the Constitution
(D) All of the above
23. What is the meaning of Foreign State as given in our Indian Constitution—
(A) Federal State
(B) Commonwealth State
(C) Nation
(D) Any State other than India
24. Which Constitutional article defines the work of Administrative Tribunal—
(A) Article 323A
(B) Article 233B
(C) Article 223B
(D) None of the above
25. Under which part of the Constitution, Tribunals have been defined—
(A) Part Four
(B) Part Seven
(C) Part Fifteen
(D) Part Ten
26. What is the period laid down by the Constitution before the proposal for removal of
Speaker and Deputy Speaker of LokSabha can be taken up by a resolution in the LokSabha—
(A) 15 Days
(B) 18 Days
(C) 16 Days
(D) 14 Days
27. In LokSabha, who can not preside in the House while a Resolution for Removal from his
office is under consideration—
(A) Speaker
(B) Deputy Speaker
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
28. Under which Article Salaries and allowances of the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of Rajya
Sabha and Speaker and Deputy Speaker of LokSabha are mentioned—
(A) 97
(B) 96
(C) 95
(D) 94
29. Which Article mentions the conduct of business of the Houses of Parliament—
(A) 99
(B) 100
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
30. Who appoints each member of either of the Houses of the Parliament after notification is
received from the Election Commission—
(A) President
(B) Speaker of LokSabha
(C) Chairman of RajyaSabha
(D) Prime Minister
31. Who shall not give vote in the first instance in either of the Houses of Parliament—
(A) Speaker
(B) Chairman
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
32. When Speaker and Chairman shall give their votes on the Parliament.
(A) When Prime Minister asks them to give vote on the Bill
(B) When the House passes such a resolution
(C) In the case of a tie between Yes and No
(D) All the above
33. What is the Quorum laid down to constitute a meeting of either of the Houses of
Parliament—
(A) one-tenth of the total number of members of that House
(B) one-fourth of the total number of members of that House
(C) one-fifth of the total number of members of that House
(D) one-half of the total number of members of that House
34. Which Article mentions disqualification of members in the Parliament—
(A) Article 101 to Article 104
(B) Article 101 to Articles 105
(C) Article 102 to Article 106
(D) Article 106 to Article 110
35. LokSabha has the supremacy in which matter—
(A) Railway Budget
(B) Defence Budget
(C) Foreign affairs
(D) Financial Bill
36. Normally, what kind of session does the Parliament hold—
(A) Budget session
(B) Monsoon session
(C) Winter session
(D) All the above
37. Which session of the year, President addresses both the Houses of Parliament—
(A) First session (Budget)
(B) Second session (Monsoon)
(C) Third session (Winter)
(D) None of the above
38. In which session of Parliament, Railway and General Budgets are presented—
(A) Monsoon session
(B) First session
(C) Winter session
(D) None of the above
39. What is the meaning of the adjournment motion under Parliamentary procedure—
(A) Member draws attention regarding important subject-matter
(B) Member wants the House to discuss his subject-matter
(C) Member wants to raise complicated issue
(D) Member wants to draw the attention of the House to way recent matter of urgent public
importance having serious consequences.
40. Who has the power to accept adjournment in the House—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) Speaker in the LokSabha and Chairman in the RajyaSabha
(D) All the above
41. Which authority in the Parliament has the right to adjourn the House—
(A) Speaker of LokSabha and Chairman of RajyaSabha
(B) President
(C) Parliamentary Affairs Minister
(D) Prime Minister
42. Who has the power to present adjournment motion in LokSabha and RajyaSabha—
(A) Minister
(B) Deputy Speaker
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Member of the said House
43. In the Parliament, every Bill has to pass through which stages of Reading before it becomes
act—
(A) First Reading
(B) Second Reading
(C) Third Reading
(D) All the above
44. When a Bill is passed by the Parliament and the President, what is the status of the
name—
(A) Law
(B) Bill approved
(C) Bill exercised for administration
(D) Government procedure
45. Which two houses, can have a joint sitting—
(A) Legislative Assembly and Parliament
(B) LokSabha and RajyaSabha
(C) Council of State and Legislative Council
(D) None of the above
46. When does the President assent the Bill—
(A) LokSabha passes the Bill
(B) RajyaSabha passes the Bill
(C) LokSabha and RajyaSabha both passed the Bill
(D) None of the above
47. In India, when does the financial year commence—
(A) First April
(B) Second April
(C) First March
(D) Fifteenth March
48. On the subject of budget, demands for grant are arranged in which way—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Finance Minister
(C) Ministry wise
(D) All the above
49. In how many parts, the Budget is presented in LokSabha—
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
50. How are the parts of the Budget known as—
(A) General Budget
(B) Railway Budget
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
51. During T. N. Seshan period as Chief Election Commissioner, who was the other
Commissioner in the Election Commission—
(A) M. S. Gill
(B) G. V. Krishnamurthy
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
52. For which Election, one General Electoral Roll for every territorial Constituency shall
exist—
(A) LokSabha
(B) RajyaSabha
(C) Legislature
(D) All the above
53. On what basis, Election to LokSabha and State Legislature shall be conducted—
(A) Adult Suffrage
(B) Indirect Election
(C) Direct Election
(D) None of the above
54. Under which Constitutional Amendment, provision for minimum age as 18 years for the
Indian citizen was made to become eligible to vote—
(A) 60th Amendment Act 1988
(B) 61st Amendment Act 1989
(C) 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(D) None of the above
55. Before 61st Amendment Act 1989, what was the age of Indian citizen eligible to vote in the
Election—
(A) 23
(B) 24
(C) 21
(D) 22
56. Under Article 326, what was the Constitutional requirment for the Indian citizen not to
become eligible as a voter—
(A) Non Resident
(B) Unsoundness of Mind
(C) Crime or Corrupt or Illegal practive
(D) All the above
57. Which Constitutional Article lays down qualification for becoming a voter—
(A) Article 328
(B) Article 339
(C) Article 326
(D) Article 295
58. Which Constitutional Article lays down qualifications for the Indian citizens for election to
Parliament—
(A) Article 81
(B) Article 80
(C) Article 83
(D) Article 84
59. Which Constitutional Article defines qualifications for the Indian citizen for election to a
State Legislature—
(A) Article 173
(B) Article 175
(C) Article 177
(D) Article 178
60. Under the Indian Constitution, what does `Adult Suffrage' signify—
(A) Children
(B) Persons
(C) Any Indian citizen who is of the age of 18 years and above
(D) None of the above
61. Who makes law with respect to Elections for State Legislature—
(A) Parliament
(B) Judiciary
(C) Government
(D) Election Commission
62. Under Constitutional Articles 327 or 328, which subject shall not be called to be questioned
in any Court—
(A) Delimitation of Constituencies
(B) The allotment of seats to such Constituency
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
63. How the election to either House of Parliament or to either House of the Legislature of the
State shall be called in question in the courts whose manner of presentation may be provided
made by law by appropriate Legislature—
(A) PIL (Public Interest Litigation)
(B) SLP (Special Leave Petition)
(C) Action under Article 32
(D) Election Petition
64. Which Constitutional Article lays down the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and
Scheduled Tribes in the LokSabha—
(A) Article 330
(B) Article 332
(C) Article 333
(D) Article 334
65. Which Constitutional Article deals with `Representation of the Anglo-Indian Community'
with House of the People—
(A) Article 334
(B) Article 331
(C) Article 332
(D) Article 333
66. Under Article 331, how many members of the Anglo-Indian Community can be nominated
in LokSabha by the President—
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 1
67. In which State a separate district has been reserved for Scheduled Tribes—
(A) Assam
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Kerala
68. Which Constitutional Article deals with representation of the Anglo-Indian Community in
the Legislative Assembly—
(A) Article 334
(B) Article 335
(C) Article 336
(D) Article 333
69. Under Article 333, how many members from the Anglo-Indian Community can be
nominated by the Governor in the Legislative Assembly—
(A) 8
(B) 1
(C) 4
(D) 3
70. Under which Constitutional Amendment of Article 334, reservation of seats for Scheduled
Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the LokSabha and State Legislative Assembly has been laid
down—
(A) 31st Amendment Act 1959
(B) 23rd Amendment Act
(C) 45th Amendment Act 1980 & 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(D) All the above
71. Before which Constitutional Amendment, 20 years were fixed for reservation of seats for
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in LokSabha and State Legislature—
(A) 23rd Amendment Act 1969
(B) 8th Amendment Act 1959
(C) 44th Amendment Act 1978
(D) 45th Amendment Act 1980
72. Through which Constitutional Amendment, 30 years were fixed for reservation of seats for
SC and ST in LokSabha and State Assembly—
(A) 45th Amendment Act 1980
(B) 50th Amendment Act 1984
(C) 23rd Amendment Act 1969
(D) 51st Amendment Act 1984
73. Which Constitutional Amendment fixes 40 years for reservation of seats for SC and ST in Lok
Sabha and State Legislative Assembly.
(A) 55th Amendment Act 1986
(B) 56th Amendment Act 1987
(C) 52nd Amendment Act 1985
(D) 45th Amendment Act 1980
74. Which Constitutional Amendment lays down 50 years for reservation of seats for SC and ST
in the House of People and State Legislative Assembly—
(A) 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(B) 44th Amendment Act 1928
(C) 45th Amendment Act 1980
(D) None of the above
75. Which Constitutional Article mentions ‘Claims of SC and ST in Govt. services and
post’—
(A) Article 336
(B) Article 335
(B) Article 338
(D) Article 339
76. In the Parliament, what is the meaning of the Government Bill—
(A) Bill presented by Ruling Party member
(B) Bill approved by the Government
(C) Only the Prime Minister presents the Bill
(D) A Bill introduced by any Minister in either of the Houses of the Parliament
77. In the Second Reading, what kind of process is adopted to approve the Bill—
(A) A general discussion on the Bill
(B) Clause by clause consideration of the Bill
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
78. Who has the authority to call a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Member of LokSabha
(D) Member of RajyaSabha
79. Who has the power to accord his assent or withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the
parliament—
(A) President
(B) Member of the House
(C) Minister
(D) None of the above
80. Which Bill President can neither return nor withhold his assent—
(A) Defence Bill
(B) Money Bill
(C) Law Bill
(D) Financial Account Committee Bill
81. How may Standing Committees are there in LokSabha—
(A) 14
(B) 15
(C) 15
(D) 18 .
82. Standing Committees in LokSabhaare—
(A) Business Advisory Committee & Committee of Privileges
(B) Committee on Absence of Members from the sitting of the House & Committee on
Estimates
(C) Committee on Government assurances and Committee on papers laid on the Table
(D) All the above
83. Financial Committees in LokSabhaare—
(A) Committee on Estimates
(B) Public Accounts Committee
(C) Public Undertaking Committee
(D) All the above
84. Ad hoc Committees in Parliament are—
(A) Committee on Draft Five Year Plan, etc.
(B) Committee in the conduct of certain members during the President Address (C) Select or
Joint Committee on Bills
(D) All the above
85. Who appoints Ad hoc Committee on Parliament—
(A) Speaker of LokSabha
(B) Chairman of RajyaSabha
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
86. By which procedure the Indian President and American President are elected as laid down
by their country's constitution—
(A) Elected through Member of Legislature
(B) Elected by the People
(C) Elected by State Legislatures
(D) Elected by an Electoral College
87. In what way our Indian Parliament is not Sovereign or Supreme with respect to the
Constitution—
(A) In the Preamble, Constitution of India defines people of India as Sovereign
(B) Written Constitution of India
(C) Separation of Power and Checks and Blanees between the three constitutional organ
(D) All the above
88. Who has said that basic features of the Indian Constitution do not amount to a change—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Parliament
(C) Supreme Court of India
(D) Government .
89. What is the nature of India's political system—
(A) Presidential System
(B) Parliamentary System
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
90. Which Constitutional Article was very much affected in the Supreme Court Judgement of
Kesavanand Bharti vs. State of Kerala—
(A) Article 352
(B) Article 368
(C) Article 351
(D) Article 342
91. Which constitutional article emopowers amendment in the Constitution of India—
(A) Article 368
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 357
(D) Article 359
92. Which constitutional organ has the power to amend Constitution of India—
(A) Judiciary
(B) Executive
(C) Legislative
(D) Parliament
93. On which subject, Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution and the same also
need ratification by the State Legislature—
(A) Articles 54, 55, 73, 162 and 241 or Chapter IV of Part V, Chapter V of Part VI or Chapter I of
Part XI
(B) Any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedules of the representation of State on Parliament
(C) The Provisions of Article 368
(D) All the above
94. Under which Constitutional Amendment Act, Article 368 of the Constitution was amended
for the first time—
(A) 25th Amendment Act
(B) 26th Amendment Act
(C) 24th Amendment Act
(D) 27th Amendment Act
95. Which Supreme Court Judgement pronounced that Fundamental Rights cannot be
abridged—
(A) GolakNath vs. State of Punjab A.I.R. 1967 S.C. 1643
(B) Kesavanand Bharti vs. State of Kerala A.I.R. 1973 S.C. 1961
(C) Indira Gandhi vs. Rajnarain A.I.R. 1975 S.C. 2299
(D) None of the above
96. Who curbed the Judicial Review power of Judiciary through Amendment of the
Constitution—
(A) State Legislature
(B) Parliament
(C) Council of State
(D) Legislative Council
97. Who restored the Judicial Review power of Judiciary under Indian Constitution—
(A) Supreme Court of India
(B) High Court
(C) Chief Metropolitan Magistrate
(D) District Court
98. In which House, Janta Government failed to secure two-third majority for new clause under
Article 368 for introducing referendum for effecting changes in certain logic features of the
Constitution—
(A) Legislative Council
(B) State Legislature
(C) State Assembly
(D) RajyaSabha
99. Who said in his judgement that no part of our Constitution is unamendable—
(A) Allahabad High Court
(B) Calcutta High Court
(C) Madras High Court
(D) Supreme Court of India
100. What was the important landmark judgement regarding amendment of the Constitution
(Article 368)
(A) Shankari Prasad vs. Union of India
(B) GolakNathvs State of Punjab
(C) Kesavanandavs State of Kerala, Minerva Mill vs. Union of India
(D) All the above
Answers :
1.(A) 2.(C) 3.(B) 4.(D) 5.(A) 6.(C) 7.(B) 8.(C) 9.(C) 10.(D) 11.(A) 12.(D) 13.(A) 14.(B) 15.(D) 16.(D) 17.(D) 18.(A) 19.(B) 20.(C) 21.(A) 22.(C) 23.(D) 24.(A) 25.(C) 26.(D) 27.(C) 28.(A) 29.(C) 30.(A) 31.(C) 32.(C) 33.(A) 34.(A) 35.(D) 36.(D) 37.(A) 38.(B) 39.(D) 40.(C) 41.(A) 42.(D) 43.(D) 44.(A)
45.(B) 46.(C) 47.(A) 48.(C) 49.(B) 50.(C) 51.(C) 52.(D) 53.(A) 54.(B) 55.(C) 56.(D) 57.(C) 58.(D) 59.(A) 60.(C) 61.(A) 62.(C) 63.(D) 64.(A) 65.(B) 66.(C) 67.(A) 68.(D) 69.(B) 70.(D) 71.(B) 72.(C) 73.(D) 74.(A) 75.(B) 76.(D) 77.(C) 78.(B) 79.(A) 80.(B) 81.(D) 82.(D) 83.(D) 84.(D) 85.(C) 86.(D) 87.(D) 88.(C) 89.(B) 90.(B) 91.(A) 92.(D) 93.(D) 94.(C) 95.(A) 96.(B) 97.(A) 98.(D) 99.(D) 100.(D)
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